I have two questions related to DateTime assingments
DateTime? y = 1 == 1 ? null: DateTime.MaxValue;
DateTime? y = null; // assignment works as expected
Why the first assignment issues error of type conversion between null and DateTime?
Which is the preferred way for null assignments of DateTime? in c#.
DateTime? x = default(DateTime?); //prints null on console
DateTime? x = null; // prints null on console
DateTime? x = DateTime.MinValue; //print 01/01/0001
The second statement DateTime? y = null; is only an assignment of null to a nullable object.
Whereas the first is a conditional assignment, which assigns some value for the true state and some other value for the false; Here you are using the conditional operator for evaluating the condition. according to MSDN first_expression (executes if true) and second_expression*(executes if false)* must be of same type or an implicit conversion must exist from one type to the other. In our case both are different so The simple solution is doing an explicit conversion as like this:
DateTime? y = 1 == 1 ?(DateTime?) null : DateTime.MaxValue;
A1. Because in ternary operator both expressions/results should be of same type.
Acc. to MSDN Either the type of first_expression and second_expression must be the same, or an implicit conversion must exist from one type to the other.
In your question, null and DateTime.MinValue do not match and hence the error conversion between null and DateTime.
You can do
DateTime? y = 1 == 1 ? null : (DateTime?)DateTime.MaxValue;
This way both answers return an answer whose type is DateTime?.
A2. Normally there is no said/preferred way of assigning this. This depends on user convention. All three are good and depend on user requirements.
Because ?: Operator operator expects same type on both sides.
Either the type of first_expression and second_expression must be the same, or an implicit conversion must exist from one type to the other.
So solution will be like below:
DateTime? y = 1 == 1 ? (DateTime?)null : DateTime.MaxValue;
And for second question, this will be good way for null assignment
DateTime? x = null;
DateTime? y = 1 == 1 ? null: DateTime.MaxValue;
This statement is giving an assignment error not because of the null assignment to a variable it is because of using null assignment in ternary operator and as you are using a class type here you the ternary operator do not lead you to do this illegal stuff as per CLR specifications mentioned,It might give you a straight compilation error.
//Which is the preferred way for null assignments of DateTime? in c#.
DateTime? x = default(DateTime?); //prints null on console
DateTime? x = null; // prints null on console
DateTime? x = DateTime.MinValue; //print 01/01/0001
As per Specifications and guidelines provided the Class Types should not be assigned null in any scenario so as per standard you can use the min value(though you can use default value too but it might effect in type conversions when needed)
The second one that you mentioned. You need to cast null value in this time asmensioned by Sir Nikhil Agrawal.
Ternary
int y = 1;
DateTime? dt3 = y == 1 ? (DateTime?)null : DateTime.MinValue;
Traditional way
DateTime? dt3 = null;
if (y == 1)
dt3 = null;
else
dt3 = DateTime.MinValue;
if you want to cast null to nullable datetime then you can use
DateTime? dt = (DateTime?)null;
Related
I have a Variable with type DateTime?
In a Function I check it for being null and want to use it afterwards without always having to ?. every call. In e.g. Kotlin the IDE recognizes a check like that and asserts that the variable cannot be null afterwards. Is there a way to do this in C#?
DateTime? BFreigabe = getDateTime();
if (BFreigabe == null) return false;
TimeSpan span = BFreigabe - DateTime.Now;
//Shows Error because it.BFreigabe has the type DateTime?, even though it can't be null
Edit:
When using
TimeSpan span = BFreigabe.Value - DateTime.Now;
instead it works in this case because .Value doesn't have nullsafety at all. However, considering that this would compile even without the null check and just produce an error, the general question still remains. How can one persuade C# that a former nullable variable isn't nullable any more?
Edit 2
Casting DateTime on the Variable works.
TimeSpan span = (DateTime)BFreigabe - DateTime.Now;
Still not as safe as in Kotlin, but similar enough.
If you have the previous check, you can access the value. Nullable types always have two properties: HasValue and Value.
You could either cast to DateTime (Without the ?) or use the value property.
DateTime? BFreigabe = getDateTime();
if (!BFreigabe.HasValue == null)
return false;
TimeSpan span = BFreigabe.Value - DateTime.Now;
Or store the nullable variable in a non nullable variable:
DateTime? BFreigabe = getDateTime();
if (BFreigabe.HasValue == null)
{
DateTime neverNull = BFreigabe.Value;
TimeSpan span = neverNull - DateTime.Now;
}
This will get full editor support and guarantee that there is no NullReferenceExcpetion.
EDIT: Because your question states Assert. Assert usually means that we will throw an exception if the state is invalid.
In this case, omit the check for nullness. If you access var.Value while var is null, this will throw a NullReferenceException. This moves the responsibility to the caller.
Another option would be to not use the nullable variable. Either by converting it (see the second listing) or by not accepting Nullable types as a parameter.
function TimeSpan Calc(DateTime time)
{
// here we know for sure, that time is never null
}
How about this?
DateTime? BFreigabe = getDateTime();
if (!BFreigabe.HasValue) return false;
DateTime BFreigabeValue = BFreigabe.Value;
TimeSpan span = BFreigabeValue - DateTime.Now;
Try to convert NULL value to any value, that is irrelevant.
DateTime? BFreigabe = getDateTime();
if (BFreigabe == null) return false;
TimeSpan span = (BFreigabe??DateTime.Now) - DateTime.Now;
I have two variables of type DateTime and DateTime?
DateTime StartDateFromDb;
DateTime? StartDateFromFilter;
if(StartDateFromDb.Date == StartDateFromFilter.Date);
While comparing, .Date is not allowingfor StartDateFromFilter of type allow null
Thanks in advance
Use the Value property available as
if(StartDateFromFilter.HasValue && StartDateFromDb.Date == StartDateFromFilter.Value.Date)
PS: Better to add a null value check. StartDateFromFilter must have a value.(HasValue is true when DateTime? type variable is not null)
For any nullable type , you can use value property.
StartDateFromFilter.Value.Date
In your case , this should work fine
if(StartDateFromDb.Date == StartDateFromFilter.Value.Date)
//// in this case .Date is not allowingfor StartDateFromFilter
From the MSDN documentation, the following two snippets are equal:
bool value;
int x = (value) ? 0 : 1;
And
bool value;
int x;
if (value)
x = 0;
else
x = 1;
Great, wonderful. I use it all the time. Terse and effective.
If we try this with a nullable type, like so:
int? x = (value.HasValue) ? value.Value : null;
We get a compile-time error:
The type of conditional expression cannot be determined
because there is no implicit conversion between '{NullableType}' and null.
This compiles fine:
int? value;
int? x;
if (value.HasValue)
x = value.Value;
else
x = null;
So, I understand that the compiler requires an explicit cast in the way of (int?)null to compile the first statement. What I don't understand is why it is required in that statement, but not the If Else block.
null can represent any object-based datatype. You need to cast null as a datatype so it know what you are talking about.
int? x = (value.HasValue) ? value.Value : (int?)null;
I know, it sounds a bit strange.
To answer the questions in the comments:
Why is it not implicit though?
Yeah, I get that. But why do I not have to cast it in a If Else block?
Let's walk through the code.
Your else statement looks like this:
else x = null;
This means you are assigning the value of null to x. This is valid, because x is a int?, which takes nulls.
The difference comes when you have the ternary operator. It says: "assign the value of the operator into x". The question (and the reason for your error) is, what datatype is the result of the ternary operator?
From your code, you can't be sure, and the compiler throws its hands up.
int? x = (value.HasValue) ? value.Value : null;
// int? bool int ??
What datatype is null? You are quick to say "well it's a int?, because the other side is a int and the result is a int?". The problem is, what about the following:
string a = null;
bool? b = null;
SqlConnectionStringBuilder s = null;
This is also valid, which means null can be used for any object-based datatype. This is why you have to explicitly cast null as the type you want to use, because it can be used for anything!
Another explanation (and possible more accurate):
You can't have an implicit cast between a nullable and a non-nullable value.
int is not-nullable (it's a structure), where null is. This is why in Habib's answer you can put the cast on either the left or right side.
For Condtional operator MSDN states:
Either the type of first_expression and second_expression must be
the same, or an implicit conversion must exist from one type to
the other.
So in you case your first_expression and second_expression are:
int? x = (value.HasValue) ? value.Value : null;
^^^^^^^^ ^^^^^
first exp 2nd Exp
Now if you see, your First Expression is of type int, and second expression is null and both are not same and there is no implicit conversion. So casting any of them to `int? solves the problem.
So:
int? x = (value.HasValue) ? (int?) value.Value : null;
Or
int? x = (value.HasValue) ? value.Value : (int?) null;
are fine.
Now why it is not required with if-else, because there multiple statements involved and it not a single statement assigning the value.
var x = value.HasValue ? value.Value : default(int?);
works too.
The documentation for the ?: operator states that the type of the expression b ? x : y is determined by examining the types of x and y:
If X and Y are the same type, then this is the type of the conditional expression.
Otherwise, if an implicit conversion (Section 6.1) exists from X to Y, but not from Y to X, then Y is the type of the conditional expression.
Otherwise, if an implicit conversion (Section 6.1) exists from Y to X, but not from X to Y, then X is the type of the conditional expression.
Otherwise, no expression type can be determined, and a compile-time error occurs.
In your example
int? x = (value.HasValue) ? value.Value : null;
there is no implicit conversion between int and null so the last bullet applies.
The reason is that the type of conditional expression is determined by the second and third operators of the conditional operator (?:) .
Since null has no type, the compiler cannot determine the type of the overall expression so it emits a compiler error.
The reason it works with the simple assignment operator (=) is because the left side of the operator determines the the type. Since in the If statement, the type of x is already known, the compiler doesn't complain.
See section 7.14 (Conditional operator) and section 7.17.1 (Simple assignment) for further explanations.
This question already has answers here:
Conditional operator cannot cast implicitly?
(3 answers)
Closed 9 years ago.
The C# code below:
int? i;
i = (true ? null : 0);
gives me the error:
Type of conditional expression cannot
be determined because there is no
implicit conversion between '<null>'
and 'int'
Shouldn't this be valid? What am i missing here?
The compiler tries to evaluate the right-hand expression. null is null and the 0 is an int literal, not int?. The compiler is trying to tell you that it can't determine what type the expression should evaluate as. There's no implicit conversion between null and int, hence the error message.
You need to tell the compiler that the expression should evaluate as an int?. There is an implicit conversion between int? and int, or between null and int?, so either of these should work:
int? x = true ? (int?)null : 0;
int? y = true ? null : (int?)0;
You need to use the default() keyword rather than null when dealing with ternary operators.
Example:
int? i = (true ? default(int?) : 0);
Alternately, you could just cast the null:
int? i = (true ? (int?)null : 0);
Personally I stick with the default() notation, it's just a preference, really. But you should ultimately stick to just one specific notation, IMHO.
HTH!
The portion (true ? null : 0) becomes a function in a way. This function needs a return type. When the compiler needs to figure out the return type it can't.
This works:
int? i;
i = (true ? null : (int?)0);
int? x = null;
x = x + 1; // Works, but x remains null
I would expect the compiler to attempt to cast x as an int, but apparently it does not.
Edit by 280Z28: Changed NullReferenceException to InvalidOperationException, which is what Nullable<T>.Value throws when HasValue is false.
This is per the specification for lifted binary operators. From §7.2.7:
For the binary operators
+ - * / % & | ^ << >>
a lifted form of an operator exists if the operand and result types are all non-nullable value types. The lifted form is constructed by adding a single ? modifier to each operand and result type. The lifted operator produces a null value if one or both operands are null (an exception being the & and | operators of the bool? type, as described in §7.10.3). Otherwise, the lifted operator unwraps the operands, applies the underlying operator, and wraps the result.
The reasoning is this: you are to think of null for a nullable type as meaning "I do not know what the value is." What is the result of "I don't know" plus one? "I don't know." Thus, the result should be null.
Nullables are never actually null references. They are always object references. Their internal classes override the == and = operators. If they are being compared to null, they'll return the value of the HasValue property.
Why would you expect the compiler to cast it as int when you've declared it as Nullable? The compiler is doing what you've told it to do and null +1 = null.
You'll have to cast explicitly or check x.HasValue before attempting to add an int.
The reason for this is that the compiler creates a 'lifted' operator for nullable types - in this case it is something like:
public static int? operator +(int? a, int? b)
{
return (a == null || b == null) ? (int?)null : a.Value + b.Value
}
I think if you try to assign the result to a non-nullable value, the compiler will be forced to use the non-nullable overload and convert x to an int.
e.g. int i = x + 1; //throws runtime exception
Unfortunately it doesn't. The X in x = X + 1 is null as in the first line so you're adding 1 to null, which equals null.
As it's a nullable int, you can use x.HasValue to check if it has a value, and then x.Value to get the actual int value out
Regardless of whether x is actually never null, that's not even the point.
The point is, when have you ever seen a NullReferenceException when trying to perform an addition?
The following example doesn't throw a NullReferenceException either and is perfectly valid.
string hello = null;
string world = "world";
string hw = hello+world;
You would only get a NullReferenceException if you try to access a member on an object that is null.
int? can never be null because it is a struct. Structs live on the stack and the stack does not handle null well.
See What is a NullPointerException, and how do I fix it?
Also, the nullable types have 2 very useful properties : HasValue, Value
This code:
if (x != null)
{
return (int) x;
}
Should be refactored to this:
if (x.HasValue)
{
return x.Value;
}