SQLite Exception when creating table using OData object containing reference to itself - c#

The following code:
oc.CreateTablesAsync(typeof(ODataService.UserInformationListItem), typeof(ODataService.CategoriesItem), typeof(ODataService.PostsItem));
Gives me this exception:
System.NotSupportedException: Don't know about ODataApp.ODataService.UserInformationListItem
At first I was just creating a table for PostsItems, which is the object i need to store, but then I got the above exception but then for ODataApp.ODataService.CategoriesItem.
Since PostItem has the property Category, which is a List<CategoriesItem> I figured I had to add CategoriesItem as a table as well.
After doing so I got an error for the property CreatedBy on PostsItems, which is a UserInformationListItem, now this is when it gets tricky.
I also added UserInformationListItem to the CreateTables function which gave me my current problem.
The object UserInformationListItem also contains a CreatedBy property which is also an UserInformationListItem.
I'm looking for a way around this without having to alter or recreate local versions of these objects.
These objects are defined on Sharepoint which I cannot edit, and are obtained by the OData service reference. If anymore information is needed to supply me with an answer, please let me know

Based on your sample code I presume you're using sqlite-net.
Sqlite-net is not a real ORM - it only has support for basic data types and can't handle your custom types as properties. You can check it your self in SqlType() static method of Orm class (SQLite.cs).
It's not self referencing that's causing problems, it's any references between the classes. Creating tables for the following two classes will fail as well with NotSupportedException:
public class CategoryItem
{
public int Id { get; set; }
public string Title { get; set; }
}
public class PostItem
{
public int Id { get; set; }
public string Label { get; set; }
public List<CategoryItem> Categories { get; set; }
}
You'll need to create your own "database" classes which will map to database tables one-to-one. To handle UserInformationListItem you'll just add it's key value as a property to PostItem. If PostItem and CategoryItem have a many to many relationship you'll need to add a cross-reference table as well.

Related

ServiceStack OrmLite: Use default database constraint instead of null value from data model

I'm still pretty new to these technologies. I've run into a small issue, and it's one that can be fixed by writing some lazy code...but OrmLite and ServiceStack streamline so many things, I'm wondering if there's a better way to do this.
So, I have a data model:
public class cctv_camera
{
[AutoIncrement]
public int I_id { get; set; }
public string I_sid { get; set; }
public string C_store_id { get; set; }
// .... others
}
This data model is mapped to a table, cctv_camera. There's another model (call it CamDetail) being sent to the client after some joins from this table. We are receiving back a CamDetail object from the client on a POST to save to the database and populating an instance of lp_cctv_camera with the data (new lp_cctv_camera().PopulateWith(CamDetail);).
Here's the thing: the I_sid column is a NOT NULL column with a default constraint that generates a hash for that row. It's something that the database is responsible for, so new items should not INSERT this column; it should be generated by the constraint.
Is there any way to db.Insert(lp_cctv_camera) while ignoring this column? I have tried the [Ignore] attribute on the definition, but we still need it in the definition to send existing I_sids out to the client. I really can't find anything in the docs. Any help is appreciated!
We've added an explicit [IgnoreOnInsert] attribute you can use to ignore specific properties on Insert which is available on v4.5.13 on MyGet.
Prior to v4.5.13 you can use the [Compute] attribute to get the similar behavior and ignore fields during inserts, e.g:
public class cctv_camera
{
[AutoIncrement]
public int I_id { get; set; }
[Compute]
public string I_sid { get; set; }
public string C_store_id { get; set; }
// .... others
}

How can I add a property to a database first Model that is not going to be part of the Database

I am trying to set up a database first project to handle the data access for a database that is common to several applications that use. The value of these properties will be set differently based on the method called, who is calling, etc. Is there any way to set a property that has a get and set method that EF will not try to map to a database field?
Use the [NotMapped] Attribute.
public class MappedClass
{
public string MappedProperty { get; set; }
[NotMapped]
public string NotMappedProperty { get; set; }
}
Reference MSDN

ServiceStack not using custom converter for NodaTime.Instant

In an effort to improve performance, I recently added some denormalized SQL views to our database and created some query models that correlate. Everything is working great except for one thing -- ServiceStack Ormlite isn't using my custom type converter for some of the query model fields and I can't figure out why. What's really confusing is that it is using the converter for the model that correlates to an actual table.
I've confirmed that the field names correlate to columns being returned by the database. I've confirmed that the SQL query Ormlite is constructing includes the fields in question. I've confirmed that the data being returned from that SQL is valid. But for some reason Ormlite never hits the FromDbValue method in my converter.
Here's a simplified version of what I'm doing:
Write Model
public class Session
{
[AutoIncrement]
public int Id { get; set; }
public Instant SessionTime { get; set; } // <-- this is populated properly
// -- other fields --
[References(typeof(User))]
public int UserId { get; set; }
[Reference]
public User User { get; set; }
}
Query Model
public class SessionQueryModel
{
public int Id { get; set; }
public Instant SessionTime { get; set; } // <-- this IS NOT populated
// -- other fields --
public int UserId { get; set; }
public string UserFirstName { get; set; }
public string UserLastName { get; set; }
}
The write model correlates to a table named Session. The query model correlates to a view called SessionQueryModel that already has the User table joined in and retrieves the name fields.
My Instant data is stored in a DATETIME2 field, and I register my custom converter properly. If anything were wrong there, the write model wouldn't successfully be hydrated.
I can't for the life of me figure out what's going on. I can't see any difference between the two, the field names match up, etc. The only thing I can figure is that Ormlite for some reason can't glean the type from a view in the same way it can from a table. Any ideas what might be causing this?
UPDATE
It appears that it's not just my Instant fields. There are a handful of other fields that aren't being populated as well, even though they're in the data with names matching the properties in the query model POCO. There doesn't seem to be any rhyme or reason. Some of these are simple VARCHAR columns mapping to string properties.
Now I'm really confused.
I figured it out. The class in question had two enum properties. One was of type SessionStates and the other SessionStatuses. I guess I didn't pay attention to the Intellisense entry originally, and the similar names made it not so easy to see.
Anyway, the enum values are stored in SQL as strings, not integers, and when ServiceStack was mapping, I can only assume the inability to parse the string to an enum value caused all mapping to cease.
Demis, if you're out there, this looks like it's probably a bug. I would think the system should throw an error if there was a parsing error as opposed to simply stopping mapping.

How, using code-only, do I map Vertical Inheritance using multiple, existing "type" values? (Telerik OpenAccess)

I am trying to map a vertical inheritance between a base class and derived class (obviously). I am using code-only and the FluentAPI approach for which I have found almost ZERO documentation. I have found a couple of docs on vertical inheritance and code-only but very few on managing the discriminator column/value.
S​o ​I have been trying to extrapolate how to do it from a combination of this blog post and some documentation on implementing vertical inheritance using code-only. All to no avail.
You will see that I have a "Deliverables" base table and "PrintDeliverables" derives from that. There will be other derivatives coming down the road. But I figured I would start with one first.
Anyway, I naturally have models that map to the tables.
public class PrintDeliverable : BDeliverableBase
{
public String PaperItemNumber { get; set; }
public String PrinterModel { get; set; }
public Boolean? ColorOption { get; set; }
public String ProductCode { get; set; }
}
public class BDeliverableBase : BModelBase, IDeliverable, ISingleID
{
public Int64 ID { get; set; }
public String Label { get; set; }
public String Description { get; set; }
public IList<DeliverableAttribute> Attributes { get; set; }
public Int64 TypeID { get; set; }
public DeliverableType Type { get; set; }
}
public class DeliverableType : BModelBase, ISingleID
{
public Int64 ID { get; set; }
public String Label { get; set; }
public String Description { get; set; }
public IList<BDeliverableBase> Deliverables { get; set; }
}
I have standard mapping which maps the fields and types, sizes, etc. When I run it with no further additions I get the Error ...
Invalid Column name voa_class
My research uncovered that the ORM is attempting to update a "discriminator" column with a value that will tie the base table and table with the derived data together. I learned that I can change the name of the column it uses, which I did in the BASE CLASS mapping (BDeliverableBase). I changed it to use the "DeliverableTypeId" column since the DeliverableType indicates which TYPE of deliverable it is. Since each TYPE will have it's own derivative table this would be an appropriate value to associate which derivative table to use.
MappingConfiguration<BDeliverableBase> map = new MappingConfiguration<BDeliverableBase>();
map.HasDiscriminator().ToColumn("DeliverableTypeId");
It appears to like this better but it wants to insert this crazy number (ex// 612274703-854) into the DeliverableTypeId column which, of course, being a foreign key to the DeliverableTypes table is not allowed.
Insert of '612274703-' failed: Telerik.OpenAccess.RT.sql.SQLException: The INSERT statement conflicted with the FOREIGN KEY constraint "FK_DeliverableType". The conflict occurred in database "DB1", table "dbo.DeliverableTypes", column 'DeliverableTypeId'
I learned that OpenAccess/DataAccess generates a hash value to insert into the discriminator column. I do not want this, in fact I know that the value must be one of the IDs available in the DeliverableType. So I read in one of the docs that you could define what value to assign to the discriminator. The example applied a hard-coded value to the base class (dog and cat derived from animal) ...
animal.HasDiscriminatorValue("23");
This presented one problem ... I do not have a single value I can hard-code. It could one of MANY values present in the DeliverableTypes table. However, for the sake of proving out the concept I hard-coded the value of an existing record
MappingConfiguration<BDeliverableBase> map = new MappingConfiguration<BDeliverableBase>();
map.HasDiscriminator().ToColumn("DeliverableTypeId");
map.HasDiscriminatorValue("819");
I continued to get the identical error from before. So it doesn't appear that it was applying my hard-coded value. So ... I thought, while hard-coding the value is a little hacky it would make more sense to define that in the mapping for the derived class. That would resolve my hard-coded issue since ALL instances of that derived class WOULD indeed be of the same DeliverableTypeId. So I tried ...
MappingConfiguration<BDeliverableBase> map = new MappingConfiguration<BDeliverableBase>();
map.HasDiscriminator().ToColumn("DeliverableTypeId");
MappingConfiguration<PrintDeliverable> map = new MappingConfiguration<PrintDeliverable>();
map.HasDiscriminatorValue("819");
This resulted in the Error
Insert of '612274703-857' failed: Telerik.OpenAccess.RT.sql.SQLException: String or binary data would be truncated.
So I got a different error but still the same poblem. This type it was trying to stuff the ORM generated discriminator value (instead of my 819) into what I am assuming is my defined discriminator column (DeliverableTypeId), although the different error makes me suspicious that it was targeting a different column.(?)
In an effort to not drag this out too long I have tried several combinations of where to these "HasDiscriminator" and "HasDiscriminatorValue" assignments go but always end up with one or the other of these errors. So the question is ...
How, using code-only, do I map Vertical Inheritance using multiple, existing "type" values?

Entity Framework associations with multiple (separate) keys on view

I'm having problems setting up an Entity Framework 4 model.
A Contact object is exposed in the database as an updateable view. Also due to the history of the database, this Contact view has two different keys, one from a legacy system. So some other tables reference a contact with a 'ContactID' while other older tables reference it with a 'LegacyContactID'.
Since this is a view, there are no foreign keys in the database, and I'm trying to manually add associations in the designer. But the fluent associations don't seem to provide a way of specifying which field is referenced.
How do I build this model?
public class vwContact
{
public int KeyField { get; set; }
public string LegacyKeyField { get; set; }
}
public class SomeObject
{
public virtual vwContact Contact { get; set; }
public int ContactId { get; set; } //references vwContact.KeyField
}
public class LegacyObject
{
public virtual vwContact Contact { get; set; }
public string ContactId { get; set; } //references vwContact.LegacyKeyField
}
ModelCreatingFunction(modelBuilder)
{
// can't set both of these, right?
modelBuilder.Entity<vwContact>().HasKey(x => x.KeyField);
modelBuilder.Entity<vwContact>().HasKey(x => x.LegacyKeyField);
modelBuilder.Entity<LegacyObject>().HasRequired(x => x.Contact).???
//is there some way to say which key field this reference is referencing?
}
EDIT 2: "New things have come to light, man" - His Dudeness
After a but more experimentation and news, I found using a base class and child classes with different keys will not work by itself. With code first especially, base entities must define a key if they are not explicitly mapped to tables.
I left the suggested code below because I still recommend using the base class for your C# manageability, but I below the code I have updated my answer and provided other workaround options.
Unfortunately, the truth revealed is that you cannot accomplish what you seek without altering SQL due to limitations on EF 4.1+ code first.
Base Contact Class
public abstract class BaseContact
{
// Include all properties here except for the keys
// public string Name { get; set; }
}
Entity Classes
Set this up via the fluent API if you like, but for easy illustration I've used the data annotations
public class Contact : BaseContact
{
[Key]
public int KeyField { get; set; }
public string LegacyKeyField { get; set; }
}
public class LegacyContact : BaseContact
{
public int KeyField { get; set; }
[Key]
public string LegacyKeyField { get; set; }
}
Using the Entities
Classes that reference or manipulate the contact objects should reference the base class much like an interface:
public class SomeCustomObject
{
public BaseContact Contact { get; set; }
}
If later you need to programmatically determine what type you are working with use typeof() and manipulate the entity accordingly.
var co = new SomeCustomObject(); // assume its loaded with data
if(co.Contact == typeof(LegacyContact)
// manipulate accordingly.
New Options & Workarounds
As I suggested in comment before, you won't be able to map them to a single view/table anyway so you have a couple options:
a. map your objects to their underlying tables and alter your "get/read" methods on repositories and service classes pull from the joined view -or-
b. create a second view and map each object to their appropriate view.
c. map one entity to its underlying table and one to the view.
Summary
Try (B) first, creating a separate view because it requires the least amount of change to both code and DB schema (you aren't fiddling with underlying tables, or affecting stored procedures). It also ensures your EF C# POCOs will function equivalently (one to a view and one to table may cause quirks). Miguel's answer below seems to be roughly the same suggestion so I would start here if it's possible.
Option (C) seems worst because your POCO entities may behave have unforseen quirks when mapped to different SQL pieces (tables vs. views) causing coding issues down the road.
Option (A), while it fits EF's intention best (entities mapped to tables), it means to get your joined view you must alter your C# services/repositories to work with the EF entities for Add, Update, Delete operations, but tell the Pull/Read-like methods to grab data from the joint views. This is probably your best choice, but involves more work than (B) and may also affect Schema in the long run. More complexity equals more risk.
Edit I'm not sure this is actually possible, and this is why:
The assumption is that a foreign key references a primary key. What you've got is two fields which are both acting as primary keys of vwContact, but depending on which object you ask it's a different field that's the primary key. You can only have one primary key at once, and although you can have a compound primary key you can't do primary key things with only half of it - you have to have a compound foreign key with which to reference it.
This is why Entity Framework doesn't have a way to specify the mapping column on the target side, because it has to use the primary key.
Now, you can layer some more objects on top of the EF entities to do some manual lookup and simulate the navigation properties, but I don't think you can actually get EF to do what you want because SQL itself won't do what you want - the rule is one primary key per table, and it's not negotiable.
From what you said about your database structure, it may be possible for you to write a migration script which can give the contact entities a consistent primary key and update everything else to refer to them with that single primary key rather than the two systems resulting from the legacy data, as you can of course do joins on any fields you like. I don't think you're going to get a seamlessly functional EF model without changing your database though.
Original Answer That Won't Work
So, vwContact contains a key KeyField which is referenced by many SomeObjects and another key LegacyKeyField which is referenced by many LegacyObjects.
I think this is how you have to approach this:
Give vwContact navigation properties for SomeObject and LegacyObject collections:
public virtual ICollection<SomeObject> SomeObjects { get; set; }
public virtual ICollection<LegacyObject> LegacyObjects { get; set; }
Give those navigation properties foreign keys to use:
modelBuilder.Entity<vwContact>()
.HasMany(c => c.SomeObjects)
.WithRequired(s => s.Contact)
.HasForeignKey(c => c.KeyField);
modelBuilder.Entity<vwContact>()
.HasMany(c => c.LegacyObjects)
.WithRequired(l => l.Contact)
.HasForeignKey(c => c.LegacyKeyField);
The trouble is I would guess you've already tried this and it didn't work, in which case I can't offer you much else as I've not done a huge amount of this kind of thing (our database is much closer to the kinds of thing EF expects so we've had to do relatively minimal mapping overrides, usually with many-to-many relationships).
As for your two calls to HasKey on vwContact, they can't both be the definitive key for the object, so it's either a compound key which features both of them, or pick one, or there's another field you haven't mentioned which is the real primary key. From here it's not really possible to say what the right option there is.
You should be able to do this with two different objects to represent the Contact view.
public class vwContact
{
public int KeyField { get; set; }
public string LegacyKeyField { get; set; }
}
public class vwLegacyContact
{
public int KeyField { get; set; }
public string LegacyKeyField { get; set; }
}
public class SomeObject
{
public virtual vwContact Contact { get; set; }
public int ContactId { get; set; } //references vwContact.KeyField
}
public class LegacyObject
{
public virtual vwLegacyContact Contact { get; set; }
public string ContactId { get; set; } //references vwLegacyContact.LegacyKeyField
}
ModelCreatingFunction(modelBuilder)
{
// can't set both of these, right?
modelBuilder.Entity<vwContact>().HasKey(x => x.KeyField);
modelBuilder.Entity<vwLegacyContact>().HasKey(x => x.LegacyKeyField);
// The rest of your configuration
}
I have tried everything that you can imagine, and found that most solutions won't work in this version of EF... maybe in future versions it supports referencing another entity by using an unique field, but this is not the case now. I also found two solutions that work, but they are more of a workaround than solutions.
I tried all of the following things, that didn't work:
Mapping two entities to the same table: this is not allowed in EF4.
Inheriting from a base that has no key definitions: all root classes must have keys, so that inherited classes share this common key... that is how inheritance works in EF4.
Inheriting from base class that defines all fields, including keys, and then use modelBuilder to tell wich base-properties are keys of the derived types: this doesn't work, because the methos HasKey, Property and others that take members as parameters, must reference members of the class itself... referencing properties of a base class is not allowed. This cannot be done: modelBuilder.HasKey<MyClass>(x => x.BaseKeyField)
The two things that I did that worked:
Without DB changes: Map to the table that is source of the view in question... that is, if vwContact is a view to Contacts table, then you can map a class to Contacts, and use it by setting the key to the KeyField, and another class mapping to the vwContacts view, with the key being LegacyKeyField. In the class Contacts, the LegacyKeyField must exist, and you will have to manage this manually, when using the Contacts class. Also, when using the class vwContacts you will have to manually manage the KeyField, unless it is an autoincrement field in the DB, in this case, you must remove the property from vwContacts class.
Changing DB: Create another view, just like the vwContacts, say vwContactsLegacy, and map it to a class in wich the key is the LegacyKeyField, and map vwContacts to the original view, using KeyField as the key. All limitations from the first case also applies: the vwContacts must have the LegacyKeyField, managed manually. And the vwContactsLegacy, must have the KetField if it is not autoincrement idenitity, otherwise it must not be defined.
There are some limitations:
As I said, these solutions are work-arounds... not real solutions, there are some serious implications, that may even make them undesirable:
EF does not know that you are mapping two classes to the same thing. So when you update one thing, the other one could be changed or not, it depends if the objects is cached or not. Also, you could have two objects at the same time, that represents the same thing on the backing storage, so say you load a vwContact and also a vwContactLegacy, changes both, and then try to save both... you will have to care about this yourself.
You will have to manage one of the keys manually. If you are using vwContacts class, the KeyFieldLegacy is there, and you must fill it. If you want to create a vwContacts, and associate is with a LegacyObject, then you need to create the reference manually, because LegacyObject takes a vwContactsLegacy, not a vwContacts... you will have to create the reference by setting the ContactId field.
I hope that this is more of a help than a disillusion, EF is a powerfull toy, but it is far from perfect... though I think it's going to get much better in the next versions.
I think this may be possible using extension methods, although not directly through EF as #Matthew Walton mentioned in his edit above.
However, with extension methods, you can specify what to do behind the scenes, and have a simple call to it.
public class LegacyObject
{
public virtual vwContact Contact { get; set; }
public string ContactId { get; set; } //references vwContact.LegacyKeyField
}
public class LegacyObjectExtensions
{
public static vwContact Contacts(this LegacyObject legacyObject)
{
var dbContext = new LegacyDbContext();
var contacts = from o in legacyObject
join c in dbContext.vwContact
on o.ContactId == c.LegacyKeyField
select c;
return contacts;
}
}
and
public class SomeObject
{
public virtual vwContact Contact { get; set; }
public int ContactId { get; set; } //references vwContact.KeyField
}
public class SomeObjectExtensions
{
public static vwContact Contacts(this SomeObject someObject)
{
var dbContext = new LegacyDbContext();
var contacts = from o in someObject
join c in dbContext.vwContact
on o.ContactId == c.KeyField
select c;
return contacts;
}
}
Then to use you can simply do like this:
var legacyContacts = legacyObject.Contacts();
var someContacts = someObject.Contacts();
Sometimes it makes more sense to map it from the other end of the relationship, in your case:
modelBuilder.Entity<LegacyObject>().HasRequired(x => x.Contact).WithMany().HasForeignKey(u => u.LegacyKeyField);
however this will require that u.LegacyKeyField is marked as a primary key.
And then I'll give my two cents:
if the Legacy db is using LegacyKeyField, then perhaps the legacy db will be read only. In this case we can create two separate contexts Legacy and Non-legacy and map them accordingly. This can potentially become a bit messy as you'd have to remember which object comes from which context. But then again, nothing stops you from adding the same EF code first object into 2 different contexts
Another solution is to use views with ContactId added for all other legacy tables and map them into one context. This will tax performance for the sake of having cleaner context objects, but this can be counteracted on sql side: indexed views, materialized views, stored procs, etc. So than LEGACY_OBJECT becomes VW_LEGACY OBJECT with CONTACT.ContactId brought over, then:
modelBuilder.Entity<LegacyObject>().ToTable("VW_LEGACY_OBJECT");
modelBuilder.Entity<LegacyObject>().HasRequired(x => x.Contact).WithMany().HasForeignKey(u => u.ContactId);
I personally would go with creating "mapper views" with CustomerId on legacy tables, as it's cleaner from c# layer perspective and you can make those views look like real tables. It is also difficult to suggest a solution without knowing what exactly is the scenario that you have a problem with: querying, loading, saving, etc.

Categories

Resources