I have a page fetching HTML content from a WCF REST service via AJAX. I started seeing errors on IE to the effect that "This page is accessing information that is not under its control...". For some content, the WCF service will, instead of returning the content directly, return instead an object or iframe tag pointing back to itself with different parameters. The WCF service sees a different URL than was requested, and the discrepancy causes the "security" error as IE thinks it's loading content from a different domain.
So, for example, the XHR request asked for
"http://localhost/Services/Content.svc?id=123..."
or even
"http://mymachine/Services/Content.svc?id=123..."
As soon as the request reaches the WCF service, however, the URL is turned into:
"http://mymachine.mydomain.com/Services/Content.svc?id=123..."
How can I get the originally requested URL within the WCF service? I've inspected theWebOperationContext.Current.IncomingRequest.UriTemplateMatch properties to no avail, there is no remaining trace of "localhost". I've also looked at the following posts and still cannot find the original URL:
What is the WCF equivalent of HttpContext.Current.Request.RawUrl?
http://jstawski.com/archive/2008/05/01/wcf-wsdl-location-address-with-https.aspx
Is there any way to get to it?
Be aware that any service running in IIS will use the host name specified in the IIS bindings. In order to change this, you will need to change the settings in IIS.
Related
I am new to web services.
I have built a web service in C# that consumes a third party service and then returns the XML response from that call in a web method.
When I test this in IIS on the local web server it works perfectly.
However when I try to call or invoke the service via the URL I use on the test page I can't return a response.
If I use a GET I simply get the test page loading and the message I can't use this test page outside of the local server.
In short, I simply want to know how to call the web method externally and mimic the INVOKE button being pressed so I get the response passed back.
This is probably really simple but I can't get my head around it.
In addition if I use Postman to try and call the URL:
WebService.asmx?op=GetSalesOrders
I get the error message detailed below which is a step forward but I am still unsure about how to package up a call to this service
You call the service by making a POST request with a properly formated SOAP message to this URL:
<path>/WebService.asmx
You get the WSDL of the web service by making a GET request to this URL:
<path>/WebService.asmx?wsdl
You can use that WSDL to build a client or test the service with something like SoapUI. See this and this for more details.
That invocation page or URLs with parameters like this:
<path>/WebService.asmx?op=GetSalesOrders
are just provided for convenience to allow you to poke at the service and make sure the service is running. They should not be used in "real" calls.
Running an old (we hope to phase it out soon(tm)) WCF Rest API. We got an endpoint like GET .../MyService.svc/. When WCF receives a request to GET .../MyService.svc (without slash) it will automatically redirect to the resource with a slash (through an HTTP 307).
Is there any way to change this behavior to either throw an error, or, ideally, having the resource listen to either of those endpoints (generically)? Because obviously WCF finds the right resource (otherwise it couldn't redirect), so it would make much more sense to directly execute that call instead of redirecting - especially with a temporary 307.
Cheers!
I'm facing a really weird scenario here with my local IIS. I have hosted multiple sites in the default website in my local IIS. One of them has the login page. From the login page, I'm redirecting the user to another page that is located in another site (which is also hosted in the same IIS inside default website virtual directory).
Now in the submit button click event of my login page, after authenticating the user, I have written a "Response.Redirect(redirect_url)". the redirect_url is being formed dynamically and given as a parameter to the Redirect method.
While debugging, the final redirect_url that is being sent as parameter to Redirect method is:
http://localhost/CP/web/console/console.aspx?sk=3e3cc1a8-73c4-4945-b3f8-08af22ea4324.50008
But after I try to go to the next step, I'm suddenly getting a HTTP 404 error saying that the resource doesn't exist and I have observed that Requested URL shown in the error page is different that what was dynamically sent to the Response.Redirect(...) method.
In the error page, the requested url shows the value as
http://localhost/CP/web/console/localhost/CPLogin?err=5
whereas my actual requested url formed in the code is:
http://localhost/CP/web/console/console.aspx?sk=3e3cc1a8-73c4-4945-b3f8-08af22ea4324.50008
I'm just unable to understand why the requested url is getting changed automatically.! Also, I observe that "localhost" is being appended to the requested URL again which is not what is supposed to happen.
Please visit THIS link[^] to understand this question more clearly. I have added screen shot of the error page.
http://amoghnatu.wordpress.com/2013/09/16/question-please-help-iis-throwing-http-404-not-found-but-requested-resource-actually-exists-requested-url-also-changing-automatically/[^]
Thanks a lot.!
Indeed, the problem was with the way I had hosted the sites in my application. I just removed all the sites related to my application from IIS and then hosted all of them again much more carefully. This resolved the "wrong redirect url" problem.
Also, I had some tables with missing required data because of which I was getting the error code.
So after I got all the tables filled with the required data and also after properly hosting the application in IIS, my problem got resolved.
In IIS, go to relevant folder, right click and "browse". Check out what is the URL. In most cases, this is due to the URL should have port number appended. For instance it will be something like :
http://localhost:<port number>/CP/web/console/console.aspx?sk=3e3cc1a8-73c4-4945-b3f8-08af22ea4324.50008
instead of
http://localhost/CP/web/console/console.aspx?sk=3e3cc1a8-73c4-4945-b3f8-08af22ea4324.50008
Hi I am new to the "SSRS" and web services i am trying to call the web service from the SSRS report.I have one web service which generates the barcode. I want the barcode to display in the report so i am calling the web service method from the ssrs.
The method is
[OperationContract]
Image BarcodeTextToImage(string value);
I am using the web service URL to call the method from the ssrs on the expression set to the image control as,
=Parameters!BarcodeURL.Value +"?value=" + CStr(Parameters!JobNumberFilter.Value)
where is BarcodeURL is set as
http://localhost/barcode/DataMatrix.svc/BarcodeTextToImage
but i am not getting any output and getting two warnings as ,
1) [rsInvalidImageReference] The Value for the image ‘Image3’ is invalid. Details: The remote server returned an error: (400) Bad Request.
2) [rsInvalidExternalImageProperty] The value of the ImageData property for the image ‘Image3’ is “”, which is not a valid ImageData.
Now i tried changing the config file of web service to change it to webHttpBinding still same issue. Any links and answers will be great.
I have got same problem some time back so i got a work around for this problem i hope this will work for you too.
1) First i created the web app with the service reference of the created web service suppose Barcode39 is service so add the reference to the web application.
2) Then write the code behind using service client and call the method to create the barcode image in that code by passing the request variables values
3) Now give the link of that page as the URL to the image expression along with setting the image type as "EXTERNAL" and pass the values to the URL as request variables as
"http:\\localhost:2310\BarcodeImage.aspx?data=" +(Parameters!YourParamtere.Value)
And one thing instead of returning the Image from the service try returning the byte array using stream and .ToArray() method that would be the best practice.Let me know if any problem.
I'm on IIS 6 and I have an ASP.Net 4.0 site that's a single page to serve as a SOAP reverse proxy. I have to modify the return content in order to delete a trouble node from the response and add a tracking node.
In order to facilitate its function as a reverse proxy for all addresses, I have the 404 on the server set to a custom "URL" of "/default.aspx" (the page for my app)
For requests without a payload, it works perfectly - such as for ?WSDL Urls. It requests the proper URL from the target system, gets the response and sends it back - it's pretty utterly transparent in this regard.
However, when a SOAP request is being made with an input payload, the Request.InputStream in the code is always empty. Empty - with one exception - using SOAPUI, I can override the end point and send the request directly to /default.aspx and it will receive the input payload. Thus, I have determined that the custom 404 handler is - when server-side transferring the request - stripping the payload. I know the payload is being sent - I have even wiresharked it on the server to be sure. But then when I add code to log the contents of Request.InputStream it's blank - even though Request.ContentLength shows the right content length for the original request.
I've also been looking for a good way to use ASP.Net to intercept the requests directly rather than allowing the normal IIS 404 handler to take care of it but even with a wildcard mapping, I can't seem to get the settings right nor am I fully confident that it would help. (But I'm hoping it would?)
Finally, I don't have corporate permission to install MVC framework.
Thus, I need either some configuration for IIS I am missing to make this work properly or some other method of ensuring that I get the request payload to my web page.
Thanks!
What about using an HTTP Handler mapped to all requests?
You'll need to add a wildcard application mapping as detailed here and correctly configure your HTTP Handler.